What distance from cloud shall an aircraft maintain when flying below 1000 feet AGL within uncontrolled airspace?

Separation standards refer to the minimum distance apart that aircraft operating in controlled airspace and at airports with an operational control tower must be kept. These are outlined in the Manual of Standards for Air Traffic Services and our air traffic controllers use them to safely manage air traffic.

Different separation standards apply to aircraft operating under instrument flight rules (IFR – all large passenger aircraft) or visual flight rules (VFR – most light aircraft and helicopters). Air traffic controllers must keep aircraft separated vertically or horizontally.

How close can they go—IFR aircraft

In Australia, aircraft flying under instrument flight rules (IFR)  in controlled airspace up to 29 000 ft (8800 m) must be separated by 1000 ft (305 m) vertically unless they are separated horizontally.

What distance from cloud shall an aircraft maintain when flying below 1000 feet AGL within uncontrolled airspace?

Above 29 000 ft, the vertical separation increases to 2000 ft (610 m), except in airspace where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) is applied.

When aircraft are separated vertically, horizontal separation can be reduced without compromising safety.

In controlled en route airspace, the horizontal separation standard between aircraft flying at the same altitude is 5 nm (9260 m). In terminal area airspace, the minimum separation is 3 nm (5500 m). Within the confines of an airport control zone, the separation can be as close as practicable as long as the aircraft remain separated.

In airspace not monitored by radar or other satellite-based navigation services, aircraft separation is achieved by the use of various procedural rules including time and estimated position.

In the air, visual flying separation depends on where aircraft are flying. For example, over Sydney Harbour sightseeing helicopters use ‘see and avoid’ principals whereas pilots maintain their own separation. For general aviation aircraft (non-commercial aircraft) outside of controlled airspace, separation can be as close as 500 ft (152 m) vertically and 500 ft horizontally.

Loss of separation occurrences

loss of separation assurance (LOSA) occurs when there has not been a clear application of a separation standard. This can happen for a range of reasons, and does not mean there has been any infringement of separation standards.

When two aircraft experience an infringement of the minimum separation distance (which varies depending on the airspace classification), it is referred to as a loss of separation (LOS). A LOS does not mean that the aircraft were at any risk of colliding, or that the incident was a ‘near miss’, it simply means that separation standards were not maintained.

12.01 ADIZ rules normally apply

      (1) only to aircraft flying above 12,500 feet.

      (2) only to aircraft flying at true airspeeds of 180 KT or more.

      (3) only to all southbound aircraft.

      (4) to all aircraft.

12.02 When operating in accordance with VFR, aircraft shall be flown

      (1) clear of aerodrome traffic zones.

      (2) clear of control zones.

      (3) with visual reference to the surface.

      (4) in compliance with all of the above.

12.03 Normally, a helicopter in uncontrolled airspace at less than 1,000 feet AGL may operate during the day in flight visibility which is not less than

      (1) 1/2 mile.

      (2) 1 mile.

      (3) 2 miles.

      (4) 3 miles.

12.04 What distance from cloud shall an aircraft maintain when flying below 1,000 feet AGL within uncontrolled airspace?

      (1) At least 2,000 feet horizontally and 500 feet vertically.

      (2) At least 1 mile horizontally and 500 feet vertically.

      (3) At least 2 miles horizontally and 500 feet vertically.

      (4) Clear of cloud.

12.05 No person shall drop anything from an aircraft in flight

      (1) which will create a hazard to persons or property.

      (2) unless approval has been granted by the Minister.

      (3) unless over an authorized jettison area.

      (4) unless it is attached to a parachute.

12.06 A person may conduct aerobatic manoeuvres in an aircraft

      (1) over an airport provided the appropriate frequency is monitored.

      (2) over the suburban area of a city above 2,000 feet AGL.

      (3) within Class F advisory airspace when visibility is 3 miles or greater.

      (4) within Class C airspace when the visibility is 1 mile or greater.

12.07 CARs state that after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, no person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft within

      (1) 8 hours.

      (2) 12 hours.

      (3) 24 hours.

      (4) 36 hours.

12.08 Day in Canada is that period of time between

    (1) sunrise and sunset.

    (2) one hour before sunrise and one hour after sunset.

    (3) the beginning of morning civil twilight and the end of evening civil twilight.

    (4) the end of morning civil twilight and the beginning of evening civil twilight.

12.09 Night in Canada is that period of time between

      (1) sunset and sunrise.

      (2) the beginning of evening civil twilight and the end of morning civil twilight.

      (3) one hour after sunset and one hour before sunrise.

      (4) the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

12.10 Formation flying is permitted only if such flights

      (1) have been pre-arranged by the pilots-in-command.

      (2) are conducted above 3,000 feet AGL.

      (3) are conducted by commercial pilots.

      (4) are led by a pilot whose licence is endorsed for formation flight.

12.11 Flight through active Class F airspace with the designator CYR

      (1) may be undertaken only by aircraft equipped with two-way radio communication and a transponder.

      (2) is restricted to military aircraft operating under the authority of the Minister of National Defence.

      (3) will be approved only for aircraft on IFR flight plans under positive radar control.

      (4) is permitted only in accordance with permission issued by the user agency.

12.12 Which statement is correct with regard to "advisory airspace"?

      (1) A transient aircraft entering active advisory airspace shall be equipped with a serviceable transponder.

      (2) Non-participating VFR aircraft are encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace during active periods specified on aeronautical charts and NOTAM.

      (3) Aircraft need to be equipped with a two-way radio to enter active advisory airspace.

      (4) Only military aircraft may enter advisory airspace depicted on aeronautical charts.

12.13 Except as provided by CARs, unless taking off, landing or attempting to land, no person shall fly a helicopter over a built-up area or open air assembly of persons except at an altitude that will permit, in the event of an emergency, the landing of the aircraft without creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface, and such altitude shall not be less than ..... above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of ..... from the aircraft.

    (1) 3,000 feet, 1 mile.

    (2) 2,000 feet, 1,000 feet.

    (3) 1,000 feet, 500 feet.

    (4) 500 feet, 500 feet.

12.14 Over non-populous areas or over open water, a pilot may not fly an aircraft at a distance less than ..... feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

      (1) 200.

      (2) 500.

      (3) 1,000.

      (4) 2,000.

12.15 Except for balloons and as provided by CARs, no person shall cause any aircraft to take off or attempt to take off from, land on or attempt to land on, any surface within the built-up area of any city or town unless

      (1) the aircraft is multi-engined.

      (2) all obstacles on approach and departure can be cleared by a minimum of 500 feet.

      (3) that surface is an airport or military aerodrome.

      (4) noise abatement procedures are followed.

12.16 What is the height AGL above which an aircraft in VFR flight shall be operated to conform with the Cruising Altitudes Order?

      (1) 700 feet.

      (2) 2,200 feet.

      (3) 3,000 feet.

      (4) 3,500 feet.

12.17 An aircraft cruising VFR in level flight above 3,000 feet AGL on a track of 290°M shall be flown at an

      (1) even thousand foot altitude.

      (2) even thousand plus 500 foot altitude.

      (3) odd thousand foot altitude.

      (4) odd thousand plus 500 foot altitude.

12.18 The selection of a cruising altitude in the Southern Domestic Airspace should be based on the

      (1) true track.

      (2) magnetic track.

      (3) true heading.

      (4) magnetic heading.

12.19 Every person who is the holder of any pilot licence or permit shall, on demand, produce such licence or permit for inspection by persons authorized by the Minister, by peace officers and

      (1) FSS operators.

      (2) Transport Canada airport managers.

      (3) immigration officers.

      (4) all of the above.

12.20 Low Level Airspace is defined as, all airspace

      (1) extending upwards from 2,200 feet AGL within designated airways.

      (2) extending upwards from 700 feet AGL within designated airways.

      (3) extending upwards from the surface of the earth within designated airways.

      (4) within the Canadian Domestic Airspace below 18,000 feet ASL.

12.21 A Control Zone normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from

      (1) 2,200 feet above the surface of the earth.

      (2) 700 feet above the surface of the earth.

      (3) the surface of the earth to 3,000 feet.

      (4) a specified height above the surface of the earth.

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This page written 8 October 2002 by Robyn Stewart.  Last revised 30 July 2019.


Page 2

(1) A jet airliner has the right of way over all other aircraft

(2) An aircraft towing objects has the right of way over all power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft.

(3) An aeroplane has the right of way over all other aircraft which are converging from the left.

(4) Aeroplanes towing gliders must give way to helicopters.

1.02 When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude

(1) both aircraft shall alter heading to the left.

(2) the aircraft on the right shall avoid the other by descending.

(3) the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way.

(4) the aircraft that has the other on its left shall give way.

1.03 When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?

(1) Gliders shall give way to helicopters.

(2) Aeroplanes shall give way to power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft.

(3) Gliders shall give way to aeroplanes.

(4) Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to gliders.

1.04 When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?

(1) Gliders shall give way to helicopters.

(2) Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters.

(3) Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes.

(4) Helicopters shall give way to gliders.

1.05 When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?

(1) Gliders shall give way to helicopters.

(2) Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters.

(3) Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes.

(4) Gliders shall give way to balloons.

1.06 When converging at approximately the same altitude

(1) balloons shall give way to hang gliders.

(2) aeroplanes towing gliders shall give way to balloons.

(3) balloons shall give way to gliders.

(4) balloons shall give way to airships.

1.07 When two power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude,

(1) the one on the left has the right of way.

(2) both shall alter heading to the left.

(3) the one on the right has the right of way.

(4) the one on the right shall give way by descending.

1.08 When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision, each pilot shall

(1) decrease airspeed.

(2) increase airspeed.

(3) alter heading to the right.

(4) alter heading to the left.

1.09 When overtaking an aircraft at your 12 o'clock position, at your altitude, you should

(1) climb.

(2) descend.

(3) alter heading to the right.

(4) alter heading to the left.

1.10 Two aircraft are on approach to land, the aircraft at the higher altitude shall

(1) have the right of way.

(2) overtake the lower aircraft on the left.

(3) give way.

(4) complete a 360° turn to the right.


Page 3

PSTAR Question Sections

1.0 COLLISION AVOIDANCE

2.0 VISUAL SIGNALS

3.0 COMMUNICATIONS

4.0 AERODROMES

5.0 EQUIPMENT

6.0 PILOT RESPONSIBILITIES

7.0 WAKE TURBULENCE

8.0 AEROMEDICAL

9.0 FLIGHT PLANS AND FLIGHT ITINERARIES

10.0 CLEARANCES AND INSTRUCTIONS

11.0 AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS

12.0 REGULATIONS - GENERAL AIRSPACE

13.0 CONTROLLED AIRSPACE

14.0 AVIATION OCCURRENCES

15.0 PIE CHOICES


Page 4

3.01 When making initial contact with a Canadian ATC unit, the pilot of aircraft C-GFLU should transmit the registration as

(1) Lima - Uniform over.

(2) Foxtrot - Lima - Uniform over.

(3) Golf - Foxtrot - Lima - Uniform over.

(4) Charlie - Golf - Foxtrot - Lima - Uniform over.

3.02 When making initial contact with a Canadian ATC unit, the pilot of aircraft C-FBSQ should transmit the registration as

(1) FBSQ.

(2) Fox, Baker, Sugar, Queen.

(3) Foxtrot, Bravo, Sierra, Quebec.

(4) Bravo, Sierra, Quebec.

3.03 After a Canadian privately registered aircraft has made initial contact with an ATS unit, which items may be omitted from subsequent transmissions? The aircraft type and

(1) any registration letters omitted by ATS in the last communication.

(2) the first two letters of the registration, if initiated by ATS.

(3) the first three letters of the registration.

(4) the phonetic equivalents.

3.04 On initial radio contact with an ATS unit the pilot shall transmit the

(1) type of aircraft and last four letters of the registration in phonetics.

(2) last three letters of the registration in phonetics.

(3) whole registration in phonetics.

(4) type of aircraft and the last three letters of the registration in phonetics.

3.05 ATIS is normally provided

(1) to replace the FSS.

(2) to relieve frequency congestion.

(3) for the rapid updating of weather forecasts.

(4) only when VFR conditions exist at airports.

3.06 Where ATIS is available the information which should be included on first contact with ATC is the

(1) phrase "with the numbers".

(2) phrase "ATIS received".

(3) phrase "with the information".

(4) ATIS phonetic identifier.

3.07 Whenever practicable, pilots operating VFR en route in uncontrolled airspace should continuously monitor

(1) 126.7 MHz.

(2) 123.2 MHz.

(3) 122.8 MHz.

(4) 122.2 MHz.

3.08 En route aircraft should, whenever possible, maintain a listening watch for aircraft in distress on

(1) the receiver mode of the ELT.

(2) 121.5 on the aircraft receiver.

(3) 121.5 during the first 5 minutes of each hour.

(4) the voice frequency of the navigation aid in use.

3.09 The specific frequency, distance and altitude within which MF procedures are to be followed are given in the

(1) CFS.

(2) Designated Airspace Handbook.

(3) A.I.P. Canada.

(4) Flight Training Manual.

3.10 Pilots broadcasting on a MF where no ground station is in operation should direct their transmission to the

(1) aerodrome UNICOM.

(2) closest ATC unit.

(3) aerodrome traffic.

(4) first aircraft heard on the frequency.

3.11 Pilots operating in VMC and intending to land at aerodromes where no UNICOM exists, should broadcast their intentions on the ATF of

(1) 121.5 MHz.

(2) 122.2 MHz.

(3) 123.2 MHz.

(4) 126.7 MHz.

3.12 If a MF is in use, pilots departing VFR shall monitor that frequency until

(1) beyond the specified distance or altitude.

(2) established en route.

(3) established at cruise altitude.

(4) clear of the aerodrome circuit pattern.

3.13 A pilot is cleared to taxi to the runway in use without a hold short clearance. To get there, the aircraft must cross two taxiways and one runway. This authorizes the pilot to taxi to

(1) the runway in use, but must hold short.

(2) the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross each taxiway and runway en route.

(3) position on the runway without further clearance.

(4) the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross the other runway.

3.14 Ground control authorizes " GOLF ALPHA BRAVO CHARLIE TAXI RUNWAY 29 HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY 04". The pilot should acknowledge this by replying "GOLF ALPHA BRAVO CHARLIE TO

(1) RUNWAY 04".

(2) RUNWAY 29".

(3) HOLD SHORT OF 29".

(4) HOLD SHORT OF 04".

3.15 When a clearance for an "immediate take-off" is accepted, the pilot shall

(1) back-track on the runway to use the maximum available length for take-off.

(2) taxi to a full stop in position on the runway and take off without further clearance.

(3) taxi onto the runway and take off in one continuous movement.

(4) complete the pre-take-off check before taxiing onto the runway and taking off.

3.16 A pilot flying a heading of 270°, receives the following message from ATC, "Traffic 2 o'clock, 5 miles, eastbound". This information indicates the traffic is

(1) 60° to the left, altitude unknown.

(2) 60° to the right, altitude unknown.

(3) 90° to the right, at same altitude.

(4) 90° to the left, at same altitude.

3.17 A pilot receives the following ATC clearance "CLEARED TO LAND, TURN RIGHT AT THE FIRST INTERSECTION". The pilot should

(1) land and attempt to turn off even though the speed is considered too high to safely accomplish the turn.

(2) complete a touch-and-go if it is not possible to safely accomplish the turn.

(3) land and turn off at the nearest intersection possible commensurate with safety.

(4) land and do a 180° turn and taxi back to clear the runway at the required intersection.

3.18 The radiotelephone distress signal to indicate grave and/or imminent danger requiring immediate assistance is

(1) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.

(2) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN.

(3) SECURITY, SECURITY, SECURITY.

(4) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.

3.19 The radiotelephone urgency signal to indicate a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, vehicle or of some person on board which does not require immediate assistance is

(1) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.

(2) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN.

(3) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.

(4) URGENCY,URGENCY, URGENCY.

3.20 What should be included along with the call sign of the aircraft and time, to indicate cancellation of a distress message?

(1) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, ALL STATIONS, DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED, OUT.

(2) MAYDAY, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, SILENCE FINISHED, OUT.

(3) MAYDAY CANCELLED, MAYDAY CANCELLED, MAYDAY CANCELLED.

(4) ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, EMERGENCY OVER.

3.21 A departing flight will normally remain on tower frequency until

(1) the flight is 2,000 feet AGL.

(2) 25 NM from the airport.

(3) 15 NM from the Control Zone.

(4) clear of the Control Zone.

3.22 You advise ATC that you are on the downwind leg. If there is other traffic in the circuit, ATC will then

(1) inform you of your number in the approach sequence or other appropriate instructions.

(2) inform you of the runway in use, wind and altimeter.

(3) advise you of all other circuit traffic.

(4) clear you to land.

3.23 A radio equipped aircraft has been cleared to land at a controlled airport. The pilot should acknowledge the clearance by

(1) replying "Roger".

(2) replying "Wilco".

(3) clicking the microphone button.

(4) transmitting the aircraft call sign.

3.24 An initial call to Timmins FSS should be "Timmins

(1) radio this is..."

(2) Flight Service Station this is..."

(3) UNICOM this is..."

(4) this is..."

3.25 A responsibility of a flight service specialist is to provide

(1) air traffic control.

(2) flight planning service.

(3) air traffic service in uncontrolled airspace only.

(4) terminal radar service.

3.26 NOTAM are

(1) available at all FSS.

(2) mailed to all pilots.

(3) issued for airport facility closures only.

(4) valid for 24 hours.

3.27 A new or replacing NOTAM without the term "APRX" is valid

(1) for 48 hours only.

(2) for the day it was issued.

(3) until the time quoted in the NOTAM.

(4) until a cancelling NOTAM is issued.

3.28 The term "APRX" when contained in a new or replacing NOTAM means the NOTAM is valid

(1) for approximately 24 hours.

(2) for approximately 48 hours.

(3) until the time quoted in the NOTAM.

(4) until a cancelling or replacing NOTAM is issued.

3.29 Your radio transmissions are reported READABILITY THREE. This means that your transmissions are

(1) readable now and then.

(2) readable with difficulty.

(3) readable.

(4) perfectly readable.

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Page 5

13.01 "Controlled Airspace" means all airspace of defined dimensions within which

(1) Control Zone regulations are in force.

(2) security regulations are in force.

(3) Special VFR flight only is permitted.

(4) an ATC service is provided.

13.02 When in VFR flight within controlled airspace, a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least

(1) 500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.

(2) 500 feet vertically and 2,000 feet horizontally.

(3) 1,000 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.

(4) 1,000 feet vertically and 3 miles horizontally.

13.03 The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight within a low level airway is

(1) 1 mile.

(2) 1½ miles.

(3) 2 miles.

(4) 3 miles.

13.04 When in VFR flight within a Control Zone, a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least

(1) 500 feet vertically and 2,000 feet horizontally.

(2) 500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.

(3) 1,000 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.

(4) 1,000 feet vertically and 3 miles horizontally.

13.05 VFR cross-country pilots wishing to cross through any part of a Class C Control Zone should

(1) advise the associated FSS.

(2) monitor the Approach Control frequency.

(3) advise ATC of their intentions and obtain a clearance.

(4) conform with circuit direction at that airport.

13.06 ATC may authorize an aeroplane equipped with a functioning two-way radio to transit a Control Zone under day Special VFR provided the flight visibility and, when reported, ground visibility, are each not less than ....

(1) 1/2 mile.

(2) 1 mile.

(3) 2 miles.

(4) 3 miles.

13.07 ATC may authorize a helicopter equipped with a functioning two-way radio to transit a Control Zone under day Special VFR where the flight visibility and, when reported, ground visibility are each not less than ....

(1) 1 mile and operated at not less than 500 feet AGL.

(2) 1/2 mile.

(3) 1 mile.

(4) 1/2 mile and operated at not less than 500 feet AGL.

13.08 An aircraft flying in accordance with Special VFR would be flying within

(1) a Control Zone.

(2) an Aerodrome Traffic Zone.

(3) a Terminal Control Area.

(4) an airway.

13.09 An arriving VFR flight shall make initial radio contact with the control tower

(1) upon entering an Aerodrome Traffic Zone.

(2) prior to entering a Control Zone.

(3) immediately prior to joining the circuit.

(4) immediately after entering a Control Zone.

13.10 VFR flight within Class B airspace is permitted

(1) only when the flight visibility is 5 miles or better.

(2) for all aircraft except gliders and balloons.

(3) if the pilot holds a Class B Airspace Endorsement.

(4) in accordance with an ATC clearance.

13.11 The pilot of an arriving VFR flight shall make initial radio contact with a control tower in Class C airspace

(1) immediately after entering the Control Zone.

(2) 10 NM outside the Control Zone.

(3) prior to entering the Control Zone.

(4) immediately prior to joining the circuit.

13.12 Unless otherwise authorized, a pilot on a VFR flight operating within a Class C Terminal Control Area must

(1) exit the airspace whenever the weather deteriorates below VFR limits.

(2) establish radio contact with the appropriate ATC unit only when transiting the associated Control Zone.

(3) establish and maintain radio communication with the appropriate ATC Unit.

(4) contact Radar Service only when taking off or landing at the major airport concerned.

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Page 6

11.01 In an emergency requiring the use of an ELT, it should be turned on

(1) immediately and left on.

(2) at the ETA in the flight plan.

(3) for the first five minutes of each hour UTC.

(4) during daylight hours only to conserve the battery.

11.02 An aircraft's ELT may be switched to transmit for test purposes anytime

(1) following a hard landing.

(2) during the first 5 minutes of any hour UTC.

(3) following a component or battery change.

(4) prior to flight and listening on 121.5 MHz.

11.03 Before shutting down you can verify that the aircraft's ELT is not transmitting by

(1) checking that the ELT switch is in the off position.

(2) listening on 121.5 MHz for a signal.

(3) ensuring that the master switch is off.

(4) checking the ELT visual warning light.

11.04 All accidental ELT activations should be reported to the

(1) airport manager.

(2) R.C.M.P.

(3) Minister.

(4) nearest ATS unit.

11.05 When an aircraft engine is left running on the ground and no person remains onboard, the aircraft's movement must be restricted and

(1) it must remain in sight of the pilot at all times.

(2) it must not be left unattended.

(3) its gross weight must be below 4,409 LB (2,000 kg).

(4) its control locks must be installed.

11.06 When confronted with an approaching thunderstorm, a take-off or landing

(1) should be avoided as a sudden wind shift or low level turbulence could cause a loss of control.

(2) is safe if you can see under the thunderstorm through to the other side.

(3) should be avoided unless the take-off can be made away from the thunderstorm.

(4) is safe of the thunderstorm is regarded as "light".

11.07 An isolated thunderstorm is in close proximity to your aerodrome of intended landing. You should

(1) land giving due consideration to wind shear on final approach.

(2) hold over a known point clear of the thunderstorm until it is well past the aerodrome.

(3) land as quickly as possible.

(4) add one-half the wind gust factor to the recommended landing speed and land.

11.08 The take-off thrust blast danger area includes at least that area extending back from the tail of a medium size jet transport aeroplane for

(1) 1,200 feet.

(2) 900 feet.

(3) 500 feet.

(4) 450 feet.

11.09 The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a jumbo jet aeroplane for at least

(1) 200 feet.

(2) 450 feet.

(3) 600 feet.

(4) 750 feet.

11.10 The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a medium size jet aeroplane for at least

(1) 200 feet.

(2) 450 feet.

(3) 600 feet.

(4) 750 feet.

11.11 The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of an executive jet aeroplane for

(1) 200 feet.

(2) 450 feet.

(3) 600 feet.

(4) 750 feet.

11.12 A 45 KT blast area can be expected ..... behind the propellers of a large turbo-prop aeroplane during taxi.

(1) 60 feet.

(2) 80 feet.

(3) 100 feet.

(4) 120 feet.

11.13 At the request of the pilot, VHF direction finding stations normally provide a homing service

(1) only in Class B airspace.

(2) only after declaration of an emergency on 121.5 MHz.

(3) on the approach control frequency.

(4) on a pre-selected tower or FSS frequency.

11.14 VDF steers are intended to provide directional assistance to VFR flights

(1) in times of difficulties.

(2) on routine navigational trips.

(3) cleared for Special VFR.

(4) in uncontrolled airspace.

11.15 You are uncertain of your position and have requested a VDF steer to an airport. You should be aware that

(1) avoiding other traffic is your responsibility but terrain clearance will be provided.

(2) avoiding other traffic and terrain clearance is your responsibility.

(3) traffic avoidance and terrain clearance will be provided.

(4) traffic avoidance will be provided but terrain clearance is your responsibility.

11.16 ATC advises that simultaneous operations (SIRO) are in progress at an airport. Pilots could expect a clearance to

(1) take off over top of an aircraft on an intersecting runway.

(2) take off on a specified parallel runway.

(3) land and hold short of an intersecting runway.

(4) land on a specified parallel runway.

11.17 When issued a clearance to land and hold short of an intersecting runway, pilots

(1) shall comply regardless of the circumstances.

(2) may taxi across the intersection after the departing or arriving aircraft has cleared their path.

(3) who inadvertently go through the intersection should immediately do a 180° turn and backtrack to the hold position.

(4) should immediately inform ATC if they are unable to comply.

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This page written 8 October 2002 by Robyn Stewart.  Last revised 8 October 2002.

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PSTAR Question Sections

1.0 COLLISION AVOIDANCE

2.0 VISUAL SIGNALS

3.0 COMMUNICATIONS

4.0 AERODROMES

5.0 EQUIPMENT

6.0 PILOT RESPONSIBILITIES

7.0 WAKE TURBULENCE

8.0 AEROMEDICAL

9.0 FLIGHT PLANS AND FLIGHT ITINERARIES

10.0 CLEARANCES AND INSTRUCTIONS

11.0 AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS

12.0 REGULATIONS - GENERAL AIRSPACE

13.0 CONTROLLED AIRSPACE

14.0 AVIATION OCCURRENCES

15.0 PIE CHOICES