A testing plan would be outlined in which section of a statement of work?

22) Which pair of statements is BEST?

A) Cost-plus contracts are prone to budget overruns while turnkey contracts are typically underbid by the contractor.

B) Cost-plus contracts are prone to a budget surplus while turnkey contracts are typically underbid by the contractor.

C) Cost-plus contracts are prone to a budget surplus while turnkey contracts are typically overbid by the contractor.

D) Cost-plus contracts are prone to budget overruns while turnkey contracts are typically overbid by the contractor.

Question 1

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Scope management is the function controlling a project in terms of its goals and objectives during the execution phase.

Question 2

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The statement of work is a detailed narrative description of the work required for a project.

Question 3

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A comprehensive statement of work includes an estimate of time and costs, resource requirements, and the scope of the work to be performed.

Question 4

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Until a project has gone through work breakdown structure, it is impossible to determine the relationships among the constituent activities.

Question 5

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The scope baseline is a document that provides a summary description of each reporting relationship along with a schedule for meetings and reports.

Question 6

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A work package may be composed of one or more subdeliverables.

Question 7

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A work package may consist of more than one milestone.

Question 8

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Work authorization functions as the formal "It's OK to begin work," on the project.

Question 9

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The terms lump-sum contract and turnkey contract are interchangeable.

Question 10

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A lump-sum contract requires the customer to pay for the full delivered price of the project before any work is done.

Question 11

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Which statement about scope management is best? A) Scope management must take place during the conceptual development, full definition, execution, and termination phases. B) Project goals don't matter in scope management as long as the budget is not exceeded. C) Scope management is accomplished in a single step by any one project team member. D) Scope management can begin once a project hits operational level.

Question 12

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The Scope Management chapter begins and ends with the quote, "It's a dream until you write it down. Then it's…" A) "… etched in stone." B) "… a scope statement." C) "… a documented dream." D) "… a goal."

Question 13

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Scope management for a project begins with: A) a work package. B) an organization breakdown structure. C) a statement of goals. D) a configuration statement.

Question 14

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Restrictions that affect project development are: A) problems. B) constraints. C) stop-limits. D) limitations.

Question 15

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The cat-skinning project management team considers the many ways to accomplish their objective before settling on one technique as part of their: A) information gathering step. B) need statement step. C) project objectives step. D) alternative analysis step.

Question 16

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There were conceivably an infinite number of courses he could take during his final semester, but since he worked 8-5, Jake needed to take night classes. He also needed to ensure that the class was offered at the Edmond campus rather than Midwest City, so he could get home in time for his favorite programs. This whittled down the list of possibilities to Systems Analysis Design and Differential Equations. "Neither of these courses is very attractive. I may have to rethink my priorities," Jake wondered aloud. "The work schedule and wrestling schedule are significant: A) scope statements." B) alternatives." C) constraints." D) goals."

Question 17

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Conceptual development for a project concludes with: A) project objectives. B) alternative analysis. C) project delivery. D) team dissolution.

Question 18

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One consequence of conceptual development that proceeds with a problem that is poorly understood is: A) problem restatement. B) cost overruns. C) problem clarification. D) task confusion.

Question 19

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Which statement about conceptual development is best? A) A project goal of "significantly increase computer performance" is better than "improve processing speed 20%" because the team may exceed 20%. B) It is vital that a best approach to solving a problem be locked in as soon as possible to save analysis time downstream. C) Conceptual development begins with the process of reducing the project's overall complexity to a more basic level. D) Project goals should be optimistic to the point of excess.

Question 20

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The statement of work should contain: A) information on the key objectives for the project. B) a brief and general description of the work to be performed. C) expected project outcomes. D) All of these are elements of a statement of work.

Question 21

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A statement of work identifies: A) a need. B) a project organization. C) members of the project team. D) alternatives.

Question 22

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Which of these is NOT a typical element of a statement of work? A) introduction and background B) a list of activities needed to complete the project C) technical description of the project D) timeline and milestones

Question 23

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The description and scope section of a statement of work would contain statements regarding: A) environmental risks. B) termination of project information. C) expected benefits. D) major milestones.

Question 24

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Expected commitments from other departments in support of the project would most likely be detailed in the: A) approach section of the SOW. B) risks and concerns section of the SOW. C) acceptance criteria section of the SOW. D) resource requirements section of the SOW.

Question 25

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A testing plan would be outlined in which section of a statement of work? A) acceptance criteria B) risks and concerns C) description and scope D) approach

Question 26

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Any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that must be produced to complete a project or part of a project is a: A) product. B) deliverable. C) tangible. D) work product.

Question 27

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Which of the following is NOT a project goal criteria? A) cost B) schedule C) team membership D) review and approval gates

Question 28

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The organizational structure for the project team, including policies and procedures, is the: A) work breakdown structure. B) rules statement. C) scope statement. D) management plan.

Question 29

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Which of these scope statement steps creates the all-important bureaucracy for a project? A) the management plan B) the work breakdown structure C) the scope baseline D) the project goal criteria

Question 30

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The mountaineers all agreed that their quest to build a bridge between the two peaks of Mount Kilimanjaro was a noble one, but they had no idea how long it would take to complete until they finished their: A) project goal criteria. B) work breakdown structure. C) scope baseline. D) management plan.

Question 31

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The new Magic Pan coming soon to your area usually serves 20,000 customers in the first year of operation. Construction plans include site selection, foundation, framing, finishing, egg-laying, and chicken acquisition. The scope statement step that determines relationships among these steps, e.g. does the chicken acquisition come before the egg laying, etc., is the: A) project goal criteria. B) management plan. C) work breakdown structure. D) scope baseline

Question 32

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Budget and schedule information for each activity in a project is contained in the: A) project goal criteria. B) management plan. C) work breakdown structure. D) scope baseline.

Question 33

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The final step in the process of systematically laying out all pre-work information is the creation of the: A) scope baseline. B) work breakdown structure. C) management plan. D) project goal criteria.

Question 34

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The PMBoK definition stating, "a process that sets a project's scope by breaking down its overall mission into a cohesive set of synchronous, increasingly specific tasks," is for the: A) project plan. B) work breakdown structure. C) deliverable statement. D) scope expansion.

Question 35

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What are work breakdown structure elements that must be completed to conclude the project deliverables? A) activities B) tasks C) work packages D) milestones

Question 36

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The lowest level in work breakdown structure contains the: A) atoms. B) activities. C) finite elements. D) work packages.

Question 37

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The highest level of work breakdown structure is the: A) project. B) deliverable. C) subdeliverable. D) work package.

Question 38

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The second level in work breakdown structure contains the: A) projects. B) deliverables. C) subdeliverables. D) work packages.

Question 39

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In order to allocate costs more precisely, a company will assign: A) bar codes to each activity. B) activity codes to each subdeliverable. C) WBS codes to each activity. D) level 4 codes to each package element.

Question 40

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Which of these statements about subdeliverables is best? A) Subdeliverables have durations of their own. B) Subdeliverables consume resources. C) Subdeliverables have direct assignable costs. D) Subdeliverables summarize the outcomes of work packages.

Question 41

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The costs attached to subdeliverables: A) are the summary of the work packages that support it. B) are called phantom costs. C) should be subtracted directly from deliverable costs. D) are not recoverable unless explicitly stated in the work breakdown structure.

Question 42

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When a supporting document functions as a project control device throughout the project's development, it is not prepared in advance: A) due to time constraints. B) as it is a dynamic document. C) since micromanaging can occur. D) because control devices are left to project completion.

Question 43

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When work is organized into cost control accounts: A) the work no longer needs to be tracked by the project manager. B) the subdeliverables become cost centers instead of profit centers for the project. C) these are assigned to the units performing project activities. D) these budgets can then be assigned back to the project manager's department.

Question 44

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Organizational breakdown structure (OBS) allows companies to: A) assign the duties of tracking costs to the customer's accounting function. B) circumvent the onerous task of work breakdown structure. C) issue a preliminary TPS report. D) define the work to be accomplished.

Question 45

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A project manager can identify personnel who will be directly responsible for each task in the project's development by using a(n): A) responsibility assignment matrix. B) milestone designation chart. C) Merrill report. D) work package report.

Question 46

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Project team members can identify who should be notified of task completion status by checking the: A) control account. B) linear responsibility chart. C) statement of work. D) monthly joint review report.

Question 47

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The step that reflects the formal "go ahead" given to the project to commence once the scope definition, planning documents, and other contractual documents have been prepared and approved is the: A) go ahead. B) send off. C) work authorization. D) work release.

Question 48

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In the case of projects developed for external clients, work authorization typically addresses: A) budget linkage. B) audit trail establishment. C) resource requirements. D) contractual obligations.

Question 49

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All projects are promised in terms of the specific functionality or performance criteria they will meet. The key feature of the contractual documentation that specifies this functionality or criteria is the: A) contractual requirements. B) valid consideration. C) contracted terms. D) contractual performance.

Question 50

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The exchange that is specified by the contractual documentation documents is: A) the terms. B) valid consideration. C) reciprocity. D) fair and unencumbered.

Question 51

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The section of the contractual documentation that identifies what are the excusable delays, allowable costs, and criteria for inspection is called the: A) bylaws. B) amendments. C) contracted terms. D) dissolution factors.

Question 52

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A project management firm that promises to do everything for a major project and hand over a fully functional, ready-to-use deliverable is performing under a(n): A) umbrella contract. B) all-inclusive contract. C) cost-plus contract. D) turnkey contract.

Question 53

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Which pair of statements is best? A) Cost-plus contracts are prone to budget overruns while turnkey contracts are typically underbid by the contractor. B) Cost-plus contracts are prone to a budget surplus while turnkey contracts are typically underbid by the contractor. C) Cost-plus contracts are prone to a budget surplus while turnkey contracts are typically overbid by the contractor. D) Cost-plus contracts are prone to budget overruns while turnkey contracts are typically overbid by the contractor.

Question 54

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Your professor moonlights to make ends meet during the summer months and has a knack for painting houses. You agree to pay $500 over whatever the materials and equipment rental cost for the job and delight in sipping lemonade in the shade watching your poor professor perform under a(n): A) cost-plus contract. B) lump-sum contract. C) time and material contract. D) fixed wage contract.

Question 55

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The reporting frequency, report recipients, and content required during project execution is laid out by: A) the organizational breakdown structure. B) scope reporting. C) the information system architecture. D) a need-to-know basis.

Question 56

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Updates on how the project is performing against milestones can be accomplished by issuing a report containing: A) S-curves. B) schedule status. C) earned value. D) technical performance.

Question 57

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An earned value report shows: A) how much money has actually been spent so far on the project. B) slippages in performance measures for the work product. C) the budgeted value of work performed. D) slippages in time against planned measures.

Question 58

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An S-curve report does NOT contain information on: A) time. B) cost. C) budget. D) quality.

Question 59

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Procedures that monitor emerging project scope against the original baseline scope are called: A) configuration control. B) design control. C) trend monitoring. D) document control.

Question 60

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A young professor becomes obsessed with the latest release of Halo and completely loses sight of his research commitment to his colleagues, falling hopelessly behind schedule and consuming 80% of the department's computing budget. Addictive behavior notwithstanding, this sad tale would never have happened had: A) configuration controls been established. B) trend monitoring been regularly performed. C) design controls been appropriately deployed. D) document control been conducted assiduously.

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